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September 6, 2010

Test4pass HP0-J34 trainning materials

Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , , , , , , , , , , — admin @ 8:49 am

HP0-J34 Exam

Implementing MSA Storage Solutions

  • Exam Number/Code : HP0-J34
  • Exam Name : Implementing MSA Storage Solutions
  • Questions and Answers : 71 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26

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1. A customer has an MSA2324fc with dual controllers. What is required when adding an MSA70 drive

enclosure to this configuration?

A. dual I/O modules on MSA controllers

B. a dual domain I/O module option

C. two additional miniSAS to miniSAS cables

D. a minimum of 16 dual-ported SAS drives

Answer: B

2. What are valid hardware capabilities of the MSA2000? (Select two.)

A. snapshots on MSA2000fc only

B. data replication between arrays

C. clones on any MSA2000

D. SAS backend bus

E. tri-port SATA drives for high availability

Answer: CD

3. In addition to using the WBI or CLI, how can you set the date and time on an MSA2324fc G2 solution?

A. by issuing the set controller-ntp enabled command through CLI

B. b y issuing the set controller-time command through CLI

C. automatically as soon as the first host is connected

D. b y configuring the system to use Network Time Protocol (NTP)

Answer: D

4. Which statement is true about the MSA Storage Management Utility?

A. It is only located on the master MSA controller module.

B. It resides on any server connected to the SAN.

C. It resides on the SAN management server.

D. It is located on either of the MSA controller modules.

Answer: D

5. The HP StorageWorks MSA2000 Family Storage Management Utility is used to manage which

components?

A. drive modules and virtual disks

B. disk groups and virtual disks

C. master volumes and replication groups

D. pre-fetch cache and disks

Answer: A

6. Which array-head chassis for the MSA2000fc G2 has 24 drive bays?

A. large form factor chassis

B. medium form factor chassis

C. s mall form factor chassis

D. high density form factor chassis

Answer: C

7. Which key benefits does the MSA2012fc provide? (Select two.)

A. clone and snapshot capability

B. ability to mix disk drives of different sizes in a virtual RAID set without capacity loss

C. flexible drive types and sizes

D. controller-based replication capability

E. support for dual-ported SATA disk drives

Answer: AC

8. Which data protection capabilities does the MSA2012i array provide? (Select two.)

A. up to 255 snapshots

B. up to 255 volume copies

C. 128 volume copies

D. 128 snapshots

E. 64 volume copies

F. 64 snapshots

Answer: CF

9. Which MSAmodel allows you to connect to up to 64 hosts?

A. MSA2012sa

B. MSA2000i

C. MSA2000fc

D. MSA2000sa

Answer: C

10. Several different methods are used to protect data. One method uses snapshots. What is an accurate

description of a snapshot?

A. source independent physical image of a volume

B. logical copy of a volume on another controller

C. remote copy of a volume on another storage array

D. source dependent logical image of a volume

Answer: D

 

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August 20, 2010

test4pass ibm test 000-007 dumps study guide

Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 7:01 am

Test 000-007 exam: IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Implementation
Test 000-007 dumps information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 75%
Test languages: English

000-007 exam questions answers Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional – Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3
IBM Certified Advanced Deployment Professional – IBM Service Management Network and Service Assurance V2
IBM Certified Advanced Deployment Professional – IBM Service Management Data Center Management and Transformation V2

IBM Tivoli Software 000-007 exam braindumps questions and answers
1. A customer is migrating from IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console (Tivoli Enterprise Console) to IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 (Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3). This customer’s environment has many custom
applications sending postemsg events to Tivoli Enterprise Console server.How will the custom applications send events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 environment by making only
minimal changes on the custom applications?
A. Custom applications should be reconfigured to send postmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 ObjectServer.
B. Custom applications should be reconfigured to send postemsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Tivoli EIF Probe.
C. Custom applications should be reconfigured to send nco_sendmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 ObjectServer.
D. Custom applications should be reconfigured to send sendmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Probe for Tivoli Common Event Infrastructure.
Answer: B

2. Which IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 feature must be installed before probe installation?
A. Probe Control
B. Administrator
C. Probe Support
D. Process Control
Answer: C

3. The customer is upgrading from Tivoli Integrated Portal (Webtop 2.2) to Web GUI. Which file should be restored to get all the filters?
A. install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/WebGUI_22
B. install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/WebGUI_21
C. install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/deprecated
D. install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/migrated_data
Answer: C
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August 13, 2010

test4pass HP0-P20 dumps questions answers

Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 9:56 am

HP0-P20 Exam – HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Exam Number/Code : HP0-P20
Exam Name : HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-07-26

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HP CSA HP0-P20 exam braindumps questions and answers
1. Which log file do you review to determine if the kernel module was modified on the command line?
A. /var/log/messages
B. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
C. /stand/vmunix.log
D. /var/adm/kc.log
Answer: D

2. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer: ABD

3. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: AC

4. What are advantages of the Online JFS file system? (Select two.)
A. allows more files per file system
B. supports 128-bit encryption of system files
C. supports larger disk drives
D. supports online defragmentation
E. supports dynamic online resizing of the file system
Answer: DE

5. Which VxVM command should be used to examine the volume configuration?
A. vgdisplay -v
B. vxdisplay -v
C. lvdisplay -vt
D. vxprint -hvt
Answer: D
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test4pass HP0-M39 dumps pdf exam

Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 9:51 am

HP0-M39 Exam – HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software
Exam Number/Code : HP0-M39
Exam Name : HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software
Questions and Answers : 67 Q&As

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1. How can you add recordable or non-recordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

2. What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

3. Which names are used to identify the status of your application before and after your automated test executes? (Select two.)
A. initial condition
B. static state
C. end condition
D. down condition
E. done condition
Answer: AC

4. During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to achieve testing goals. Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C
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test4pass exam HP0-M31 braindumps answers

Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 9:44 am

HP0-M31 Exam
HP Quality Center 10.0 Software
Exam Number/Code : HP0-M31
Exam Name : HP Quality Center 10.0 Software
Questions and Answers : 60 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-08-03

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1. Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
ANSWER: C

2. What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
ANSWER: D

3. What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F.custom document generator
ANSWER: BCE

4. You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
ANSWER: D
1. Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?
A. Test Plan
B. Test Resources
C. Dashboard
D. Requirements
ANSWER: C

2. What does the term severity refer to?
A. importance level of the defect
B. impact of the defect on the release goals
C. impact of the defect on the test set
D. impact of the defect on system operation
ANSWER: D

3. What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)
A. external reports and graphs
B. predefined reports and graphs
C. document generator
D. user-defined reports and graphs
E. custom reports and graphs
F.custom document generator
ANSWER: BCE

4. You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which graph type should you use to accomplish this?
A. progress graph
B. trend graph
C. requirements coverage graph
D. summary graph
ANSWER: D
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August 9, 2010

Test4pass HP HP0-S26 exam pdf exam dumps

Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 8:44 am

HP HP0-S26 exam braindumps questions and answers

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1. Which Linux tool provides information on memory utilization, processor utilization and process statistics?

A. top

B. kde

C. Profile

D. kstat

Answer: A

2. Which functionality of VMware allows the load balancing of virtual machines between HP ProLiant

servers running ESX?

A. High Availability (HA)

B. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)

C. Thin Provisioning

D. HP Insight Virtual Machine Manager software (VMM)

Answer: B

3. Which component does HP Insight Virtual Machine Manager software (VMM) work with to manage

ESX hosts?

A. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager

B. Xen Manager

C. VMware vCenter

D. HP SIM CMS

Answer: C

4. Which storage solution benefits most from using HP ProLiant Multifunction Gigabit Server Adapters?

A. MSA2000sa storage array connectivity

B. MSA2012J storage array connectivity

C. MSA70 storage array connectivity Q

D. MSA2012fc storage array connectivity

Answer: B

5. Which utility monitors a logical processor’s performance on a Windows Server 2003 system and logs it to

disk?

A. Windows Task Manager (taskmgr.exe)

B. I/O Statistics (iostat.exe)

C. Windows System Monitor (perfmon.exe)

D. Compute Configuration Utility (ccu.exe)

Answer: C

6. Which utility enables you to capture hardware information from a single reference server and modify it to

support many types of target servers in a mass server deployment project?

A. CONREP

B. RBSU

C. System Maintenance Menu

D. ACU

Answer: A

7. Which command is used to test the SSH connection from CMS to a client?

A. ssh -v -/ServerAdmin Qientmachinename

B. mx -v -I ssh ServerAdmin Qientmachinename

C. https://CMSServername:22

D. ssh -v -I ServerAdmin CMSmachinename

Answer: A

 

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July 12, 2010

test4pass hp HP0-D07 exam test engine

Filed under: HP, HP certificate introduction — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 8:05 am

HP0-D07 Exam
Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions
Exam Number/Code : HP0-D07
Exam Name : Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions
Questions and Answers : 65 Q&As

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HP Certification I HP0-D07 exam braindumps questions and answers
3. Which component can be migrated between nPars?
A. floating cell
B. base cell
C. vPar
D. interleaved memory
Answer: A

4. Your customer is asking which improvements the sx2000 chipset servers have compared to his sx1000
chipset servers. Which statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. Only the sx2000 chipset supports Itanium processors.
B. The sx2000 chipset supports more processor sockets than the sx1000.
C. The sx2000 chipset has higher memory access latency than the sx1000.
D. The sx2000 chipset provides a higher memory bandwidth than the sx1000.
E. The sx2000 chipset has better error detection and correction features than the sx1000.
Answer: DE

5. When is it beneficial to use SAS drives instead of SATA drives?
A. when high disk capacity is required
B. when high reliability is required
C. when hot-swap capability is required
D. when the lowest cost per GB is required
Answer: B

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June 20, 2010

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Filed under: HP — Tags: , , , , — admin @ 2:02 pm

HP HP0-D07 Exam – Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions
Exam Number/Code : HP0-D07
Exam Name : Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions
Questions and Answers : 65 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-06-20

Exam Description
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HP Certification I HP0-D07 exam braindumps questions and answers
1. What are characteristics of HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select three.)
A. Managed
B. Protected
C. Optimized
D. Virtualized
E. Consolidated
F. Orchestrated
Answer: CDF

2. What are components of HP ProActive Defense strategy? (Select three.)
A. Trusted Infrastructure
B. Adaptive EDGE Architecture
C. Secure Mobility
D. Threat Management
E. Access Control
Answer: ADE

3. Which component can be migrated between nPars?
A. floating cell
B. base cell
C. vPar
D. interleaved memory
Answer: A

4. Your customer is asking which improvements the sx2000 chipset servers have compared to his sx1000
chipset servers. Which statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. Only the sx2000 chipset supports Itanium processors.
B. The sx2000 chipset supports more processor sockets than the sx1000.
C. The sx2000 chipset has higher memory access latency than the sx1000.
D. The sx2000 chipset provides a higher memory bandwidth than the sx1000.
E. The sx2000 chipset has better error detection and correction features than the sx1000.
Answer: DE

5. When is it beneficial to use SAS drives instead of SATA drives?
A. when high disk capacity is required
B. when high reliability is required
C. when hot-swap capability is required
D. when the lowest cost per GB is required
Answer: B
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June 14, 2010

HP hp0-j38 pdf exam

Filed under: HP, HP certificate introduction — Tags: , , , , — admin @ 1:01 pm

HP HP AIS hp0-j38 exam braindumps questions and answers

1. What is the expected growth rate of the Storage Media Operations database?
A. 100MB for every 2000 tapes
B. 100MB for every 10,000 tapes
C. 1GB for every 1000 tapes
D. 2GB for every 10,000 tapes
Answers: B

2. You are implementing an ESL E-Series tape library. What is the maximum number of drives supported per drive cluster?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answers: B

3. You are proposing a disaster tolerant to your customer.Which factors should you consider when estimating the cost of data loss?(Select three)
A. size of the backup and restore window.
B. type of backup,image based or file based.
C. cost of downtime while recreating data.
D. ability to recreate the data.
E. effect on customer and supplier satisfaction
F. average amount of lost data
Answers: CDE

4. Usually everything that is needed to recreate the working environment must be backed up. Which data may be excluded from backup?
A. operating system and configuration files
B. application bbinaries and files
C. disk layout information
D. files and binaries that are easier to recreate or install than to restore
Answers: D

5. Which feed speed to write speed ratio provides the optimum backup performance for tape drives with HP enterprise backup solutions?
A. 5:1
B. 4:1
C. 3:1
D. 2:1
Answers: C

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June 4, 2010

Test4pass HP HP0-Y26 braindumps guide

Filed under: HP, HP certificate introduction — Tags: , , , , , — admin @ 3:59 am

Test4pass HP HP0-Y26 Exam questions
Building a Complete HP ProCurve Mobility Solution
Exam Number/Code : HP0-Y26
Exam Name : Building a Complete HP ProCurve Mobility Solution
Questions and Answers : 73 Q&As

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Test4pass HP ASE HP0-Y26 exam braindumps questions and answers
1. You have verified that an HP ProCurve Switch 3500yl is correctly configured for PIM dense mode. The
switch’s IGMP table shows active hosts that are members of multicast group 239.193.22.22. The multicast
is in progress, and all hosts are receiving the content. However, the multicast group does not appear in the
switch’s PIM route table.
What does this indicate about the 239.193.22.22 multicast group?
A. The switch is forwarding the multicast at Layer 2.
B. Other multicast routers are configured for PIM sparse.
C. The server and IGMP hosts are in different VLANs.
D. The switch is Querier for the group.
Answer: A

2. You have enabled Dynamic ARP Protection on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. When is it necessary to
define IP-to-MAC address bindings?
A. when you must lock down the switch’s IP addresses to its base MAC address
B. when you must specify clients connected to untrusted ports
C. when you must identify devices that do not use DHCP, but have a static IP address assigned
D. when you must protect uplink ports that connect to other switches that do not support Dynamic ARP
Protection
E. when you must provide security to ports where different clients may connect at different times
Answer: C

3. You must use the web management interface of an HP MSM710 Controller to perform a manual upgrade
of the controller’s software. In the management interface, which location must be specified as the source for
the software file?
A. TFTP server
B. your workstation
C. controller auxilary port
D. your FTP server
Answer: B

4. You must configure an HP ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated with
VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A. It must be an address assigned to a multi-netted interface.
B. It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C. It must match the Backup router’s address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D. It must match the Owner router’s address for the VLAN 10 interface.
Answer: D

5. You must configure an HP ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 10.
What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must be an address on a multi-netted interface.
B. It must match the router’s address for the VLAN 10 interface.
C. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 10 on the Backup router.
D. It must use a classful network mask.
Answer: B
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