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August 20, 2010

Test4pass 70-576CSharp braindumps

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70-576CSharp Exam

PRO: Designing and Developing Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010

  • Exam Number/Code : 70-576CSharp
  • Exam Name : PRO: Designing and Developing Microsoft Office SharePoint Server 2010
  • Questions and Answers : 150 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-27

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Exam Description                                                                                      

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Microsoft TS 70-576CSharp exam braindumps questions and answers

1. You are helping an organization��s executive team to design an automated approval process to standardize certain documents.
You have the following requirements:
?The documents must be reviewed and approved by multiple teams in the approval chain.
.Each reviewer must provide feedback as part of completing a review.
.Each reviewer must either approve or reject the documents.
.After review, the document status must be changed; an e-mail must be generated to the document author and the next reviewer in the approval chain; and a task should be created for the next reviewer in the approval chain.
You must design a custom workflow solution for the document approval process on a SharePoint 2010 site.
What should the solution include?
A. an initiation form to collect the reviewer��s feedback and a Simple activity to approve and reject the document
B. an association form to collect the reviewer��s feedback and a Composite activity to support conditional activities such as approval and rejection
C. a task form to collect the reviewer��s feedback and a Composite activity to support conditional activities such as approval and rejection
D. a task form to collect the reviewer��s feedback and a Simple activity to approve and reject the document
Answer: C

2. You are designing a SharePoint 2010 feature. The feature includes a feature receiver that executes code on activation and deactivation.
The feature receiver code interacts with a Web service, which could cause errors beyond your control.
You need to ensure that the feature does not activate or deactivate if the Web service causes an error.
Which approach should you recommend?
A. Wrap your code in a try-catch block. Log the error and issue another request to the Web service in the catch block.
B. Wrap your code in a try-catch block. Log the error and throw an exception in the catch block.
C. Wrap your code in a try-catch block. Only catch exceptions of type SPException.
D. Wrap your code in a try-finally block. Log any issues your code encounters in the finally block.
Answer: B

3. You are designing a SharePoint 2010 information architecture plan for a client that specifies the mechanics of implementing content type change control.
The requirements for the change control plan specify that:
?Site managers can create site-specific content types based on the content types in the parent site.
.Content types must not be overwritten when changes are made to parent site content types.
.Site managers can change child site content types.
You need to specify a content type change control plan that meets all these requirements.
Which approach should you recommend?
A. Direct the site manager to explicitly set the read-only property of the content type to true. Direct the site collection manager to make the specified change required in the child site to the content type at the site collection level.
B. Direct the site manager to explicitly set the read-only property of the content type to true. Perform a push-down operation from the parent site to overwrite the required changes to the read-only content types in all the child sites.
C. Define the content type as read-only at the child site level. Direct the site manager to explicitly set the read-only property of the content type to false to make changes to the content type. Then change the read-only property to true.
D. Define the content type as sealed. Direct the site manager to explicitly set the sealed property of the content type to false to make changes to the content type. Then change the sealed property of the content type to true.
Answer: C

4. You are designing a SharePoint 2010 application to store 50 GB of digital assets, including audio and video files that are up to 20 MB in size.
You have the following requirements:
?The disk storage system must use standard hard drives and must be configured to optimize read performance.
.The SharePoint 2010 database uses Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008.
.The application must leverage standard SharePoint 2010 components to limit the requirement for custom development.
You need to design a storage solution that meets all of these requirements.
Which approach should you recommend?
A. Enable FILESTREAM storage for a Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008 database on a RAID 0 disk system. Then install and configure remote Binary Large Object (BLOB) storage in SharePoint 2010.
B. Store the assets directly in Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008 and create multiple content databases on a RAID 0 disk system.
C. Install and configure support for external BLOB storage for SharePoint 2010 and use the ISPExternalBinaryProvider interface to manage files on a RAID 0 disk system.
D. Install and configure support for external BLOB storage for SharePoint 2010 and configure a Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008 database to store BLOBs on a RAID 5 disk system.
Answer: A

5. You are designing a SharePoint 2010 application that stores information about each machine in a factory. This information includes an inventory of parts, the machine��s maintenance history, and a document library of repair manuals for each machine in Microsoft Word format.
The application must:
?Establish links between the factory machine data, the machine part inventory, the maintenance history, and the repair manuals to allow the display of additional fields from the other lists.
.Enforce relational integrity between the data to create custom views for various business users.
.Allow nontechnical users to update the individual list data and views, as well as to update the manuals.
.Enforce relationships that allow cascade deletes of items from the machine parts list when items are deleted from the machine list, but prevent data in the machine parts list from being orphaned.
You need to design a data access plan that meets all these requirements and allows all data to be managed within the SharePoint 2010 system.
Which plan should you recommend?
A. Create tables in Microsoft SQL Server for each set of inventories. Create relationships with primary and foreign keys linking the tables. Use Business Connectivity Services (BCS) to connect SharePoint 2010 lists to these tables to manage the data.
B. Create tables in Microsoft SQL Server for each set of inventories. Create relationships with primary and foreign keys linking the tables. Store machine part manuals in a SharePoint document library and use event receivers to synchronize data in the lists and libraries.
C. Use SharePoint 2010 lists and document libraries to store data. Create relationships using lookup fields and relationship joins between the lists and document libraries.
D. Use SharePoint 2010 lists and document libraries to store data. Create a custom workflow to update information in the lists and document libraries.
Answer: C

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000-996 Exam

Test996,IBM WebSphere MQ.V6.0.Solution Design

  • Exam Number/Code : 000-996
  • Exam Name : Test996,IBM WebSphere MQ.V6.0.Solution Design
  • Questions and Answers : 49 Q&As

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Exam : IBM 000-996
Title : Test996,IBM WebSphere MQ.V6.0.Solution Design

1. An organization will use WebSphere MQ to connect its central z/OS systems to its 20 branch offices. Each of the 20 offices runs applications on an AIX platform. The z/OS system supports two z/OS LPARs. One is for production and the other is for both development and testing. Separate AIX machines are available for production and testing and development. There will be individual queue managers supporting production, testing and development. Which of the following naming standards is MOST appropriate?
A. Channel names will be <sending-qmgr-name>.to.<receiving-qmgr-name>.
B. z/OS queue manager names will be MQQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and Development environments.
C. AIX queue manager names will be AMQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and Development environments.
D. Applications will query a z/OS DB2 table for the name of the correct queue manager to use.
Answer: A

2. A company is creating a backup and recovery plan for a WebSphere MQ application to be implemented on a z/OS system. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a full backup?
A. A full backup requires dual logging.
B. A full backup requires more DASD space than a fuzzy backup.
C. A full backup page set cannot be used to recover if the logs are damaged or lost.
D. A full backup requires a queue manager shutdown.
Answer: D

3. An existing high volume WebSphere MQ for z/OS V6 application is changing data stored in messages from a COBOL Copybook format to XML format. There will be a delay before messages can be transmitted. The requirements specify that with move to XML, over 4GB of message data may now need to be held at one time. What action should be recommended?
A. These volumes are unacceptable to WebSphere MQ. Redesign the application.
B. The underlying page set should be resized to account for the new volumes.
C. A message exit should be written to compress data stored in the queues
D. Transmission queue maximum queue depth should be increased.
Answer: B

4. An application publishes documents in PDF format as WebSphere MQ RFH2 messages to a wide range of recipient platforms. Which of the following is critical to ensure the documents are processed correctly?
A. The National Language support on the recipient systems must match the code page with which the PDF document was created.
B. The message format in the MQMD must be specified as MQFMT_NONE.
C. The PDF document size must not exceed 4MB.
D. This is only supported on Windows platforms.
Answer: B

5. The WebSphere MQ client interface is popular in part because the client software is free, but this is offset by a number of functional limitations. When deciding whether to deploy an application with the client interface or with a local queue manager, these must be considered. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the WebSphere MQ client?
A. Clients cannot be centrally managed by WebSphere MQ tooling.
B. In the event of a network outage it can be difficult to determine if the last API call was actually performed.
C. Data cannot be stored as messages by the client in the event of network outages.
D. Transactional processing with local units of work is not supported.
Answer: D

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test4pass The Open Group OG0-093 braindumps exam

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OG0-093 Exam

OG0-093 TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2

  • Exam Number/Code : OG0-093
  • Exam Name : OG0-093 TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2
  • Questions and Answers : 80 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-29
  • Price: $ 130.00 $ 99.00

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1. According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

2. Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

3. According to TOGAF, which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

4. In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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ST0-072 Exam

Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 Exchange (STS)

  • Exam Number/Code : ST0-072
  • Exam Name : Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 Exchange (STS)
  • Questions and Answers : 149 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 159.00 $ 109.00

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1. What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

2. Rather than distributing the Enterprise Vault (EV) client through the Group Policy Object, the network administrator wants to distribute the Self Installing client through EV custom forms.
What must be enabled on the client to accomplish this?
A. ActiveX controls
B. Background Intelligent Transfer Services
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. Automatic Updates
Answer: A

3. Which two functions are performed by the Enterprise Vault (EV) Configuration Wizard? (Select two.)
A. grants privileges to the Vault Service account
B. configures the Provisioning Service
C. creates the EV system mailbox
D. configures the index and shopping basket locations
E. configures the Vault Store Group fingerprint database
Answer: AD

4. For optimal performance, which two solutions are best for setting up Enterprise Vault indexes? (Select two.)
A. direct-attached disks
B. SDLT tape drives
C. WORM storage
D. SAN storage
E. NAS device
Answer: AD

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ST0-050 Exam

Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS)

  • Exam Number/Code : ST0-050
  • Exam Name : Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS)
  • Questions and Answers : 100 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 200.00 $ 150.00

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1. How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?
A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the script
B. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settings
C. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpoint
D. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines Properties
Answers: C

2. Which settings are specific to Antivirus and Antispyware predefined requirements?
A. application startup command
B. signature file check
C. execute an installation package
D. allow user to cancel remediation
Answers: B

3. What is the default context in which programs are run when using the patch requirement in a Host Integrity policy?
A. in logged-in user context
B. in system context
C. in administrator user context
D. in domain-user context
Answers: B

4. What must an administrator specify in a custom requirement that is different from a predefined requirement?
A. the client’s policy manager domain
B. the client’s group assignment
C. the policy’s ending Host Integrity state
D. the policy’s log entries
Answers: C

5. How should the logical condition of an IF/THEN/ENDIF statement be reversed?
A. add an AND statement
B. enable the Reverse Logic Processing Engine for the requirement
C. use the Transform function of the extended scripting commands
D. toggle the NOT function on the IF portion of the statement
Answers: D

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JN0-304 Exam

M-series,Specialist(JNCIS-M)

  • Exam Number/Code : JN0-304
  • Exam Name : M-series,Specialist(JNCIS-M)
  • Questions and Answers : 225 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 119.00 $ 99.00

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1. Routers A and B have an OC12c and a GE link between them and are running OSPF over both of these links. Which statement is correct, assuming the default JUNOS software OSPF metric calculation?
A. There are two equal cost paths between A and B.
B. The GE link is the preferred path between A and B.
C. The OC12c link is the preferred path between A and B.
D. Manual metric assignment must be configured to determine the outcome.
Answers: A

2. What is the default function of a secondary path in MPLS?
A. to act as an equal-cost path to the primary path
B. to enable another LSP for load balancing
C. to act as a diverse backup path to the primary path
D. to allow the use of explicit path selection via EROs
Answers: C

3. How long is an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Answers: C

4. Which three are well-known mandatory BGP attributes? (Choose three.)
A. Origin
B. AS path
C. Next hop
D. Community
E. Multiple exit discriminator
Answers: ABC

5. In which two ways can you influence how downstream LSRs treat MPLS traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Use an EXP rewrite table.
B. Use a DSCP rewrite table.
C. Statically assign a CoS value to an LDP-signaled LSP.
D. Statically assign a CoS value to an RSVP-signaled LSP.
Answers: AD

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HP0-D07 Exam

Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions

  • Exam Number/Code : HP0-D07
  • Exam Name : Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions
  • Questions and Answers : 65 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 119.00 $ 99.00

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1. What are characteristics of HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select three.)
A. Managed
B. Protected
C. Optimized
D. Virtualized
E. Consolidated
F. Orchestrated
Answer: CDF

2. What are components of HP ProActive Defense strategy? (Select three.)
A. Trusted Infrastructure
B. Adaptive EDGE Architecture
C. Secure Mobility
D. Threat Management
E. Access Control
Answer: ADE

3. Which component can be migrated between nPars?
A. floating cell
B. base cell
C. vPar
D. interleaved memory
Answer: A

4. Your customer is asking which improvements the sx2000 chipset servers have compared to his sx1000
chipset servers. Which statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. Only the sx2000 chipset supports Itanium processors.
B. The sx2000 chipset supports more processor sockets than the sx1000.
C. The sx2000 chipset has higher memory access latency than the sx1000.
D. The sx2000 chipset provides a higher memory bandwidth than the sx1000.
E. The sx2000 chipset has better error detection and correction features than the sx1000.
Answer: DE

5. When is it beneficial to use SAS drives instead of SATA drives?
A. when high disk capacity is required
B. when high reliability is required
C. when hot-swap capability is required
D. when the lowest cost per GB is required
Answer: B

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EX0-101 Exam

ITIL Foundation v.3

  • Exam Number/Code : EX0-101
  • Exam Name : ITIL Foundation v.3
  • Questions and Answers : 291 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 119.00 $ 99.00

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1. Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A

2. What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A

3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A

4. The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A

5. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
Answer: B

6. Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skilltominimise the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B

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220-702 Exam

CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)

  • Exam Number/Code : 220-702
  • Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition)
  • Questions and Answers : 610 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 119.00 $ 99.00

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1. A system powers on, begins POST, displays the BIOS version information and then hangs with the error message Error loading operating system. Which of the following is MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. A virus has infected the system
B. Corrupted BOOT.INI file
C. Corrupt MBR
D. Boot sector corruption
Answer: C

2. A client has been unable to fix corruption of system files and does not have a backup or an Automated System Recovery (ASR) disk. Which of the following is the BEST action to take next?
A. Copy the missing file from another computer and reboot.
B. Execute a Windows repair from the Windows setup media.
C. Boot into the Recovery Console and execute FIXBOOT.
D. Reboot and press the F2 key when prompted.
Answer: B

3. A technician is called for a computer that is not connecting to the network. Which of the following would be the MOST common tool used to identify the issue?
A. Cable tester
B. Multimeter
C. Loop back plugs
D. Crossover cable
Answer: A

4. Which of the following is the BEST solution for repairing a hard drive that results in the NTLDR is missing display upon booting?
A. Use recovery console and the fixmbr command.
B. Use recovery console and the bootcfg /rebuild command.
C. Use recovery console and the fixboot command.
D. Use recovery console and the chkdsk command.
Answer: C

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220-701 Exam

CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)

  • Exam Number/Code : 220-701
  • Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
  • Questions and Answers : 511 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2010-07-26
  • Price: $ 119.00 $ 99.00

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1. A technician is setting up a lab with fourteen wired PCs and one switch in a physical star network configuration. Which of the following should the technician keep in mind when setting up the lab?
A. Cable management to avoid trip hazards
B. Electrical safety with the extra network cables
C. Location of the PCs with respect to each other
D. Number of fans located in the room so system does not overheat
Answer: A

2. Which of the following I/O ports has the SLOWEST transfer rate?
A. S/PDIF
B. USB 1.1
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB 2.0
Answer: B

3. Which of the following media types has the largest capacity?
A. DVD-RW+
B. DVD-RW-
C. Blu-Ray
D. Dual-sided DVD
Answer: C

4. Aero is a feature of which operating system?
A. Windows Vista Basic
B. Windows XP Home
C. Windows XP Media Center
D. Windows Vista Ultimate
Answer: D

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